this post was submitted on 08 Oct 2024
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Linguistic body has relaxed rules on use of apostrophe to show possession, not traditionally correct in German

Archived version: https://archive.ph/Ff8GY

SpinScore: https://spinscore.io/?url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.theguardian.com%2Fworld%2F2024%2Foct%2F07%2Fgermany-influence-of-english-idiots-apostrophe

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[–] BumpingFuglies 9 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (5 children)

Interesting. In English, I'd say the "idiot's apostrophe" is an apostrophe that's used for a non-possessive, non-contraction 's'.

E.g., "The Johnson's are going to the mall to buy pizza's."

[–] [email protected] 0 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (4 children)

Doesn't "idiot's" in this example show possession?

And the "Johnson's" is a plural?

Or do I misunderstand what ~~you're trying to say~~ saying?

[–] BumpingFuglies 9 points 1 month ago (2 children)

In English, apostrophes are only used for possession and to indicate missing letters (usually vowels), as in contractions.

My example showed apostrophes incorrectly being used for non-possessive plural nouns. I used a proper noun ("Johnson") and a common one ("pizza") to better illustrate my point.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 month ago

Thanks.

Wanted to make sure I was getting what you were puttin' down.

Yea, the rules are pretty clear, at least I always thought so.

Kind of telling that so many people can't be bothered to understand it.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)
[–] BumpingFuglies 3 points 1 month ago

Nah, it's pretty simple. Pronouns don't use apostrophes for possession; they only use them for contractions like "it's".

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