this post was submitted on 18 Apr 2024
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Could both these statements not be true? The 1937 Family Law did criminalize homosexuality and label it a bourgeois decadence.
But that doesn’t mean the west was any better if not oftentimes worse.
when liberals say the communist oppressed lgbtq people thing they mean it as a criticism of communism in comparison to capitalism, as in "the ussr under stalin had bad lgbtq legislation therefore capitalism is a better system" this is a rejection of that criticism because how could this possibly indicate that capitalism is better when the failure of communist in this particular case is that they werent better capitalist like they were supposed to be.
Correct, but I dislike that liberals point that out when the Western world has done the same. They are either ignorant of those laws or think liberalism and their politicians are allowed to get away with it. If we confront them, they always say that's "whataboutism."
yeah they always compare the west as it is now with communist countries 50-100 years ago, right after the revolution, in the middle of civil war and famine, encircled by capitalist aggression etc.
unsurprising really, if your analysis by definition doesn't account for material conditions and is purely idealistic, nothing stops you from comparing societies from different time periods, on different stages of economic and technical development, etc.
plus soviet union being born from a very very crhistian country, and other like china or cuba, european colonies
also if you go far back enough, lgbt+ and poly relationships are completely normal till they discovered something called 'feudalism' from the west...
*christian