this post was submitted on 22 Jul 2024
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[–] [email protected] 14 points 1 month ago (5 children)

I'm not an American so I'm not sure I understand. Wikipedia says voter turnout in 2016 was 59.2% of the voting-eligible population. Even if we count is a percentage of the voting-age population (i.e. including people with felonies or without citizenship or barred from voting for other reasons) it's still 54.8% voter turnout.

But that bar at the top of the graph makes it look like only around 15% voted.

Can someone explain?

[–] [email protected] 15 points 1 month ago (1 children)

It's cause by FPTP. If the largest share of voters in a given state were people that didn't vote, all the electoral college votes should go to "did not vote." That doesn't happen IRL because they just ignore low voter turnout.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 month ago

It's true but for the broader picture one should add that many people don't bother to vote if their state is predicted to be a landslide victory for either candidate.

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