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Marx claimed capitalism was crucial for production: China skipped their capitalism phase, so that's why they re-introduced it with Dengist reforms. Is this statement too reductive? (lemmygrad.ml)

submitted 2 years ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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u/jmattchew - originally from r/GenZhou
Question is in the title. I know that everything is more complicated than this, but is it a fair shorthand assessment or not? Could it be too simple to say that feudalism -> capitalism -> socialism, or is this actually the right way to look at it? Did the USSR fail because it went straight from feudalism to socialism and then introduced the wrong reforms?

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 years ago

u/orkgashmo - originally from r/GenZhou
They didn't re-introduced capitalism, they adapted their socialism to the global market.