this post was submitted on 13 Jan 2022
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u/evil_elmo1223 - originally from r/GenZhou
I looked up this online, and most of the sources claimed that North Korea invaded South Korea initially. Is this true? As I thought the US had first occupied the land after taking down the PRK.

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 years ago

u/klqwerx - originally from r/GenZhou
The US caused it by not honouring the terms, agreed to & upheld by the Soviets, allowing Korea to determine its own future.

They installed a puppet with no real connection to the people, an almost total unknown outside of certain circles, they allowed people that worked with / for the Japanese occupation to remain in place, they imposed martial law on the people & forbade any kind of democratic process

The messiness around the 38th would not, could not, have occurred in the absence of foreign occupation.

So, the only way the north could invade the south is because of the imposition of this arbitrary division imposed from without

The entire western narrative is a delusional fantasy.

There is no North Korea, no South Korea, there is only Korea. Unfortunately for all Korean people a part of the peninsula is occupied by a foreign military force.