Lemmygradwontallowme
feeling like starting a struggle session this morning
Oh yeah... well uh, fuck you then
Had enough sleep last night?
Ohh... that effect... thought it'd be more whacky than that
It's been long over due... but now it should be coming
Most living women won't fetishise themselves like anime girls are fetishised
Ofc
And there is also the place, japan factor that has to be considered.
What is the Japan factor, I may ask, for example?
When the army came to visit me, t'was in the early hours, with Merkavas, old cluster bombs, and Plasan Armored Cars
They thought they had me cornered but then I had them wrecked, with me armor-piercing rockets of me little Saegheh
I forgot to mention, just to clarify, we're talking about David Gilmour, right?
Edit: the industrialist is using 100 percent of the loan, in our example, to do the whole labor process. So the variable and constant capital are all part of the original sum, the surplus on 100 loaned to him would be 140%, if he owes 5% on the loan he pockets the other 35% himself. The variable capital isn't an additional sum on top, the loan can be used for constant and variable capital as money.
Oooh... that explains the 5% interest
So, overall, he borrows a serviced loan, possibly for constant and variable capital,
whose net price is = 5 (100 - 105 -> borrowed money - {future principal + future interest} ), but that which can help form the 40% value/ surplus value of the full 140%/ commodities
40 - 5 = 35 in profit
The rest of your points seem fine, though
The financier is paying 100 for 105, the industrialist is paying 105 for 120.
^Correction: 140 is the value of the commodties, 120 is merely the cost of constant and variable capital bought to make commodities
But just to reiterate my point, how does the industrial capitalist preserve his capital value of 120, while adding a surplus value of 20 onto it, despite the financial capitalist's taking of principal and sum?
Because it seems to me, that after the process of selling the commodities, the industrial capitalist has to deal with the following costs:
100 + 5 = principal + interest, taken by the money capitalist (note: the interest is derived from the surplus value created, due to 5% interest)
20 = variable capital paid
140 - 125 = 15
Leaving 15 to be the industrial capitalist's profit, of the original surplus value of 20.
However, a transformation from 120 capital --> 15 increase seems to me a decrease... to counter this, this would indicate some preservation of the initial capital used in production, to continue capitalist expansion.
TO make it so that 120 capital -> + 20 surplus value -> 140 capital
Damn you scared me 😨