this post was submitted on 13 May 2024
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[–] [email protected] 10 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) (1 children)

Semite: “a member of any of a number of peoples of ancient southwestern Asia including the Akkadians, Phoenicians, Hebrews, and Arabs” So, how is it anti-semitic to be pro-palestine?

[–] [email protected] 16 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) (2 children)

Yes, that is the etymology. Queer no longer means odd, and literally now also means figuratively.

Antisemitism is the belief or behavior hostile toward Jews just because they are Jewish. It may take the form of religious teachings that proclaim the inferiority of Jews, for instance, or political efforts to isolate, oppress, or otherwise injure them. It may also include prejudiced or stereotyped views about Jews.

It is not antisemitic to be pro-Palestine if you ask anyone other than Netanyahu. I know many Jews that resent him for using that term in defense of his actions, and the actions of the IDF.

[–] [email protected] 8 points 7 months ago (1 children)

Queer no longer means odd

Yeah it does. It has additional meanings, but it also retains that one.

literally now also means figuratively.

Over my dead body! Just because an authority says something unacceptable is acceptable doesn't make it so. See also: the Israeli government committing genocide.

It is not antisemitic to be pro-Palestine

Correct.

if you ask anyone other than Netanyahu

Frustratingly, he's far from the only Zionist demagogue spreading that particular lie. It's become less effective recently, but it's been used to shut down any criticism of the apartheid regime for decades..

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago (2 children)

literally now also means figuratively.

Over my dead body! Just because an authority says something unacceptable is acceptable doesn't make it so. See also: the Israeli government committing genocide.

Maybe this isnt the right place to interject here: but yes, it now also means figuratively. Not because an authority said so, but because a sizable portion of native english speakers use it to mean figuratively. Thats how language works.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago (1 children)

No, the authority said so. The OED regularly updates words and definitions in the dictionary based on colloquial usage. Literally also means figuratively according tho the oldest and most respected dictionary of the English language.

https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/american_english/literally

[–] [email protected] 3 points 7 months ago (1 children)

The OED is, again, descriptive. They observe the change in meaning and update their description accordingly.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

Correct. You’ve just described how the language you’re using has come to be. It evolves over time, and the OED is the most respected documenter of that change. We don’t use the same English that was standard a century ago. Wheat is colloquial now is the standard.

[–] [email protected] -4 points 7 months ago (2 children)

That's a textbook appeal to popularity fallacy. Just because many people make the same mistake doesn't mean it becomes correct.

The most popular electric car brand is Tesla. That doesn't mean that Teslas don't have the build quality of a 1980s Yugo and the price tag of a brand new Jaguar.

Don't use other people being stupid as an excuse to be stupid, is what I'm saying.

[–] [email protected] 7 points 7 months ago (1 children)

No, that is just how linguistics work. Language is decided descriptively, not prescriptively

[–] [email protected] -2 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) (2 children)

Nope, both descriptivism and prescriptivism have merit, depending on the specific case.

A lot of people using a word as having the opposite meaning out of pure ignorance and/or carelessness is one case where prescriptivism is warranted.

I'll die on this fucking hill 😄

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago (1 children)

I'll die on this fucking hill 😄

Literally?

[–] [email protected] 2 points 7 months ago

No, figuratively.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago (1 children)

And you will die on a linguistically untenable hill. Redefining words had happened throughout history and language hasnt died out and its not gotten worse.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 7 months ago

And you will die on a linguistically untenable hill

Is this your way of warning me against going hiking in Wales? 😉

language hasn't died out

Of course not. That's literally impossible. Don't be fatuous, Jeffrey.

and its not gotten worse.

That's of mixed veracity at best.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 7 months ago

This is a bad comparison. Language absolutely works as described in the previous comment. While certain trends such as using "literally" to mean "figuratively", are personally super annoying, that doesn't change the fact it's 100% correct when enough people do it.