Am reading a bourgeois macroeconomics textbook right now (why do I torture myself so), and the example they give to explain the theory of comparative advantage made me physically cringe. It goes something like this:
"Suppose that South America can produce 400 units of food or 200 units of computers, and Europe can produce 200 units of food or 400 units of computers. South America has a comparative advantage in producing food, while Europe has a comparative advantage in producing computers. So it would be mutually beneficial for South America to specialize in making food and Europe to specialize in making computers"
My god, what a painfully ironic example, given that the theory of comparative advantage originated from 19th century Britain, which promoted the theory because it wanted to force foreign nations to open themselves up to British exploitation. But neither the colonialist interests behind the origin of the theory nor the way in which this racist example perfectly plays to said colonialist origins ever crossed the minds of the author.
Death to bourgeois economics
Why does it look like it's trying to seduce someone