this post was submitted on 03 Jan 2024
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chapotraphouse
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this is Luttwak pop-nonsense, how could a state magically devolve into feudatories without developing the economic bases and political frameworks in advance? in territories the Latins didn't even control?
these authors like to imagine a smooth centralized machine like Justinian or Trajan were running that suddenly gets aborted by the Crusade, but that state no longer existed in 1204. political and economic bases were already decentralized by the thema, and regional rural aristocracies were dominating provincial politics for centuries. Constantinople didn't even import grain to sustain an oversized population anymore, it was long since fed by the environs of Thrace and even internal agriculture.
the only thing that fundamentally set the medieval roman state apart from it's neighbors was Constantinople, it's control of the sea trade and being the patrimony of the imperial government meant there was money for a greater degree of central government and crucially a beefy central military that existed outside the regional powerbases. even so, it wasn't so different from the Ayyubids or Great Seljuks, fundamentally feudal structures with a really rich royal core allowing for better centralization--for a period--when that core was lost or divided the decentralizing pressure reasserted itself and 'governors' were lords again.